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Closed-End Fund

An investment fund that issues a fixed number of shares at IPO and then trades on a stock exchange, often at a premium or discount to NAVPS.

Definition

Unlike an open-end mutual fund, a closed-end fund does not continuously issue or redeem shares based on investor demand. After the initial public offering, the number of shares is fixed, and investors buy or sell them on the exchange. Because supply is fixed, the market price is set by investor sentiment and can trade at a premium (above NAVPS) or a discount (below NAVPS) to the fund's underlying net asset value per share. Many Canadian closed-end funds trade at persistent discounts of 5-15%, which can create a buying opportunity if the discount is expected to narrow. Distributions from closed-end funds may include return of capital, which reduces the investor's ACB without immediate tax, but creates a larger capital gain on disposition. Closed-end funds are governed by NI 81-102 if they are publicly distributed investment funds, although split-share corporations and certain flow-through structures use the NI 41-101 prospectus regime instead.

Source

NI 81-102; NI 41-101; TMX Group closed-end fund listings

Where this shows up on the CIRE

  • Outcome 5.1

Test yourself

Two real CIRE-bank questions on this exact outcome. Click to reveal the answer and the rule citation.

  1. 1

    Under UMIR, a registered trader at a CIRO marketplace participant enters a large buy order for a thinly traded security. The trader fragments the order into many small lots throughout the session to avoid triggering an uptick in the displayed quote. A colleague flags this as potentially problematic. Which UMIR concept is most relevant?

    Outcome 5.1 · click for answer

    A.Best execution, because the trader is failing to obtain the best available price.
    B.Gatekeeper obligations, because the branch manager approved the order.
    C.Manipulative and deceptive trading, because intentionally managing orders to affect the appearance of trading activity or price formation may constitute manipulation under UMIR.Correct
    D.Short sale rules, because the order involves selling borrowed securities.

    UMIR prohibits trading activity that creates a misleading appearance of trading activity or that manipulates the price of a security. Deliberately fragmenting orders to manage quote impact in a way designed to create a false impression of natural market activity can fall within UMIR's manipulation provisions. This is distinct from legitimate order management strategies because the intent is to avoid natural price discovery rather than to achieve best execution for a client.

  2. 2

    A client asks their RR to explain Keynesian economic theory. Which of the following best summarizes the Keynesian view on managing economic downturns?

    Outcome 5.1 · click for answer

    A.Keynesian theory focuses exclusively on supply-side incentives such as reducing corporate tax rates to stimulate growth.
    B.Keynesian theory emphasizes controlling the money supply as the primary policy lever for economic stability.
    C.Keynesian theory argues that aggregate demand drives economic activity and that government fiscal stimulus; increased spending or tax cuts; is the appropriate tool to offset deficiencies in private demand during recessions.Correct
    D.Keynesian theory holds that free markets are self-correcting and government intervention worsens downturns.

    Keynesian economics, developed by John Maynard Keynes, holds that aggregate demand; the total spending in an economy; is the primary driver of output and employment in the short run. When private sector demand is insufficient (as in a recession), Keynesian theory prescribes government fiscal intervention through increased public spending or tax cuts to fill the demand gap. This contrasts with monetarist theory (which focuses on money supply control, associated with Milton Friedman) and supply-side theory (which emphasizes tax reduction and deregulation to stimulate production).

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